Hello there!
I was just watching one poker video and now when I am in approx. middle of it I have a question which I cannot find answer for. Maybe some of you guys can help me with it. Be so kind and go to this video [Edited by fruktpuff]
and rewind it to Minute 13:12, Here we have a hand A3s, and in the right corner there is a tab which shows us "Hero is getting 1,9:1 and needs at least 34% equity to break even." I understand that 1,9:1 is because we have to call 16,1$ to particiapte in the pot in which there already is 30,85$ so we divide these two and get this 1,9:1. But where does these 34% come from? How do we get it? If I get an understanding of this spot, I might understand it overall and I think it is important...
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Originally posted by dragan2171
1/2,9=0.34
it is the same as 1.9:1, just expressed in percentages.
And how do u get percentages from odds? how 1.9:1 is the same as 1/2,9 ??
well, we can put it like...
probability for event A is 1.9, probability for event B is 1. so "total probabilities" would be 1.9+1 = 2.9
so what is the percentage probability of B happening? it's pB/total - or 1/2.9, which is ~0.34.
what would be that value for A? pA/total - 1.9/2.9 = ~0.66
(i don't really like this explanation, there probably is some theoretically better and still clear way to explain it but i hope this is enough. i mean, probabilities should theoretically be expressed in numbers from 0 to 1 and so on...)
Hello,
I've had to remove the link to the video in question as it is hosted on a competitor site and I'm afraid we can't allow linking to other affiliate training sites.
Regards,
Richard
Originally posted by fruktpuff
Hello,I've had to remove the link to the video in question as it is hosted on a competitor site and I'm afraid we can't allow linking to other affiliate training sites.
Regards,
Richard
then how the hell I am going to get the answer? maybe u could explain it to me?