is my river call fine?

1. K9o is abit loose for me to open.
2. cbetting is ok.
3. In your comments you speak about outs on the river... There aren't any cards coming and no outs are present.
4. Villain is calling you for a certain reason. On river the Flush completed, board paired and you call.... This is not ok.

hi nitrol. i meant of course his outs on the turn for the river, sorry if i wrote it the wrong way!
to 4. yes i agree. i didnt feel good calling anyways. next time i'll just give up. I think folding is a quality i need to learn alot more too.
are my calculations right though?

I would not call the river bet. Flush draw completes, board paires, those small cards hit villains calling range.
And x/c - x/c - bet, line is very often used as a value line. This villain looks solid and he shouldn't bluff and try to rep flush OTR because board is paired.

Your latter calculation is correct.
The formula is: bet / (pot + bet).

The pot here is 0.31+0.18

Originally posted by AXSPIRAL
hi nitrol. i meant of course his outs on the turn for the river, sorry if i wrote it the wrong way!
to 4. yes i agree. i didnt feel good calling anyways. next time i'll just give up. I think folding is a quality i need to learn alot more too.
are my calculations right though?

OK,now I get it.
Remeber that his line is a value line for the small limits.

a good rule of thumb for that pot odds calculation is just to remember that 1/2 pot is 25%, full pot is 33%, and then just approximately guess for a bet size in between.

For example on the river when you check, the last thing you need to be thinking of is how much you need to be good on the river, getting out the calculator right, you should just instantly know you need to be good 23ish% of the time when he turns his cards up and then decide what to do and whether it's worth to call. also if you use holdem manager for example it will always tell you the % you need in the HH

as for the hand itself river is probably fine given that that's how you played the hand up until then, but actually i'm not sure.

when you bet twice and he absorbs both bets in position he will usually have either a pair or a flush draw. he bets small on the river too like he really wants a call with TT or JJ.

I would typically check my whole range on the flop to begin the hand so this kind of thing normally doesn't happen to me in CO vs BTN scenario. Even if you have over pairs it's good to start off by x/calling sometimes because a lot of people assume you have that and just want to set mine you, and also it's good for balance since it reduces your fold vs bet and practically players think you will always x/fold too much so they bet for you, not to mention it completely simplifies your strategy. But that's just what I do.

ok somehow my brain doesnt work properly though when it comes to calculating pot odds... i don tknow why
so: 0,49 in the pot / 0,18 which he has to pay makes 2,72:1 pot odds. that equals 36%.
but now 0,18/(0,49+0,18) = 26%

which of the two is correct now?

26%

you could just use algebra to solve it too by the formula

EV = (what he wins when he's good)*X - (what he loses when he loses)*(1-X) = 0

i.e. .46*X = .18*(1-X)

X*(.46 + .18) = .18

X = .18/(.46+.18) = 26%

Thus if X > 26%, EV > 0

If you bet the pot you give 2 to 1. Bet half the pot you give 3 to 1. Easy to remember.

ok guys i think i got it now. thanks

so since most bets in no limit holdem are between 1/2 and potsize we can say that in general for a call we need between 25% to 33% equity?

It is around that numbers.

Flop cbet and turn cbet is ok. I would x/call non club rivers and x/f club rivers.

Originally posted by AXSPIRAL
ok somehow my brain doesnt work properly though when it comes to calculating pot odds... i don tknow why
so: 0,49 in the pot / 0,18 which he has to pay makes 2,72:1 pot odds. that equals 36%.
but now 0,18/(0,49+0,18) = 26%

which of the two is correct now?

I think I know why you got that first calculation wrong.

The formula says:
bet / (pot + bet)

Pot is the initial pot + bet = how much money there really is in the middle. Then you add bet one more time.

0.18 (bet) / (0.31 + 0.18 pot) + 0.18 (bet) = 26%

That is because when he calls, he will not only win the initial pot + your bet. He will win the initial pot + your bet + his own call. So villain invests 0.18 to win 0.67, not 0.49.

Originally posted by NothingIsForSho
you could just use algebra to solve it too by the formula

EV = (what he wins when he's good)*X - (what he loses when he loses)*(1-X) = 0

i.e. .46*X = .18*(1-X)

X*(.46 + .18) = .18

X = .18/(.46+.18) = 26%

Thus if X > 26%, EV > 0

This.