As far as I could observe, up until that moment, villain limped/folded most of the time.
$0.10 NL - Holdem - 6 players
MP: 118 BB (VPIP: 35.19, PFR: 3.70, 3Bet Preflop: 0.00, Hands: 56)
CO: 80.5 BB (VPIP: 41.67, PFR: 4.17, 3Bet Preflop: 0.00, Hands: 24)
Hero (BTN): 264.1 BB
SB: 115.9 BB (VPIP: 46.34, PFR: 4.88, 3Bet Preflop: 0.00, Hands: 41)
BB: 154.8 BB (VPIP: 0.00, PFR: 0.00, 3Bet Preflop: -, Hands: 1)
UTG: 75.3 BB (VPIP: 22.50, PFR: 10.00, 3Bet Preflop: 0.00, Hands: 40)
SB posts SB 0.5 BB, BB posts BB 1 BB
Pre Flop: (pot: 1.5 BB) Hero has K♥ A♦
fold, MP calls 1 BB, fold, Hero raises to 6 BB, fold, fold, MP calls 5 BB
Flop: (13.5 BB, 2 players) K♠ 3♥ K♣
MP checks, Hero checks
Thoughts and questions:
Spoiler
most of the time, I think I would cbet here, at least 1/3. But villain seemed to fold so much (limp/fold pre or limp/call and fold to a flop cbet) and it was such a dry board, that I decided to check this time.
I was not trying to be trappy here, just to give him enough confidence to call 2 streets of bet (turn and river) with his entire range. Any A, any Q, any pair.
If I thought he was one of the sticky players, I would have cbetted all the 3 streets.
Turn: (13.5 BB, 2 players) 5♦
MP checks, Hero bets 6.5 BB, MP calls 6.5 BB
River: (26.5 BB, 2 players) 6♦
MP checks, Hero bets 12.6 BB, MP raises to 25.2 BB, Hero calls 12.6 BB
Thoughts and questions:
Spoiler
WTF was this? Of course I was pretty sure he didn't have a str8, but would a somewhere passive player try a move like this with anything apart from a K or a fullhouse?
Did I have room for 4bet shove here or would I only be called when I am beated?
Spoiler
MP shows J♦ A♥ (One Pair, Kings)
(Pre 26%, Flop 2%, Turn 0%)
Hero wins 73.1 BB
