I just had a nice 10-minute-long double or nothing tournament, with this decisive hand:
It was just the third or 4th hand in the game, accordingly low blinds and no reads. Sorry can't download the converter (maybe the chinese firewall^^)
1 ($1.470)
2 ($1.470) DEALER
3 ($1.480) SB
4 ($1.500) BB
5 ($1.500)
HERO ($1.480)
7 ($1.410)
8 ($1.480)
9 ($1.710)
10 ($1.500)
Hands: K :heart:Q ![]()
Hero calls 20
8: calls 20
9: calls 20
1: calls 20
4: raises to 40
HERO: calls 20
8: calls 20
9: calls 20
1: calls 20
FLOP [J :heart:,K :diamond:,T :heart:]
4: bets 210
HERO: calls 210
8: calls 210
9: raises to 1.260
1: folds
4: all-in 1250
HERO: all-in 1230
8: folds
***9: calls 200
I know I should better not call with QJs in such a situation, and, quite frankly, I don't have any explanation for doing so:)
So at the Flop I have a King pair Q high, straightdraw and K flushdraw, as well as 2 outs for straight flush/royal flush. I guess the outs need to be discounted, because someone might have AQ or A
x ![]()
I face a bet with 3 behind me, and I decide to call with the intention of going all-in vs 2-raises. How would you play this hand? Is it too lose for a double-up? How can I play such a hand in a game with normal payout-structure?