[Closed] NL100 SH - QQ vs maniac 200bb deep

Against a different opponent I could fold this, but from what you describe I'd also get it in on the turn.
I think the fact that he 3bets preflop cuts down the number of 8x in his range and the only draw that got there was 75 - also a hand that he wouldn't 3bet too often imo.

As you say there are also worse overpairs in his range although in my opinion air is even more likely than 99+ as he would probably stick to his plan of potcontrolling with those once he did it on the flop.

It's 200BB, but since we know he is capable of big (semi)bluffs it's ok imo - nh.

the only draw that got there was 75

which was, naturally, the one he had (but it was soooooooted) ♦

Seriously, I found it really difficult (virtually impossible) to put villain on that hand since it just seemed so unlikely he would 3b pre and then call a big 4b with it. Ofc, he looked like a maniac, but still

as a general rule, is it okay to give a much smaller weighting to very unlikely hands when we are trying to work out whether we can go broke profitably?

Originally posted by Bierbaer
Against a different opponent I could fold this, but from what you describe I'd also get it in on the turn.
I think the fact that he 3bets preflop cuts down the number of 8x in his range and the only draw that got there was 75 - also a hand that he wouldn't 3bet too often imo.

As you say there are also worse overpairs in his range although in my opinion air is even more likely than 99+ as he would probably stick to his plan of potcontrolling with those once he did it on the flop.

It's 200BB, but since we know he is capable of big (semi)bluffs it's ok imo - nh.

+1, I go broke light too vs idiots ♦

Agreed with all , guys just 1 question.
Where you all see

he 3bets preflop

and

unlikely he would 3b pre and then call a big 4b

?

Hi VzLOM,

I'm sorry, I didn't quite understand the last question you asked - could you rephrase it?

Ah, maybe I made a mistake. In this particular hand, looks like villain just makes larger open raise because of CO poster and then I 3b so there is not 4b - was that why you are confused?

Thanks

yeah correct

Originally posted by Tim64
as a general rule, is it okay to give a much smaller weighting to very unlikely hands when we are trying to work out whether we can go broke profitably?

Definitely. This usually even comes naturally when you try do determine his range:
75s only has 4 combinations, so when you look at a range of for example 40 combinations he obv only has 75 10% of the time.

So in this hand let's say he has 99-JJ in his range, 18 combinations. Additionally he may have some FDs, let's just say 10 combinations.
So there are 28 combinations of hands you beat whereas there are only 4 of 75s - and he sometimes even folds it preflop to the 3bet.
So we can even decrease the combinations of 75s to maybe 2 - therefore he only has a straight one out of 15 times.
Of course this is never a definite estimation, but it's the best we can do to approximate his range.