EDIT: I was doing all this when you answered Phil. So here are the maths:
On the flop his C/R range is the following:
22,99,TT,QJs,KsJs+,AsJs+,T9s
Not sure about 22 but anyways it is only 1 combos.
Board: Ts9s2d
Equity Win Tie
MP2 35.09% 35.09% 0.00% { AdAh }
MP3 64.91% 64.91% 0.00% { TT-99, 2s2c, QJs, AsKs, AsQs, KsQs, AsJs, KsJs, AsTs, As9s }
Let's assume he is barreling turn with 100% of this range but T9s (16 combos)
Board: Ts9s2d2h
Equity Win Tie
MP2 46.45% 46.45% 0.00% { AdAh }
MP3 53.55% 53.55% 0.00% { TT-99, 2s2c, QJs, AsKs, AsQs, KsQs, AsJs, KsJs, AsTs, As9s }
EV shove:
He will fold everything but sets (T9s got counterfeited) (7 combos = 44%) vs which I have 4% equity.
Ev shove= 0.56**59.5+0.44*[0.04*202-83.5]
Ev Shove=0.12
That's a wow to me, the shove is BE. But that's because villain has such a narrow range(i.e not many FDs) since it is BB vs UTG
EV call and fold to spade:
Let's say that he keeps barreling on non spade x% and we fold to a spade (18% of the time).
sets:44%
FDs:31%
QJs:25%
vs QJs we have about 86% equity (he has 6 outs) and he will bet 100% river
EV call= -24*0.18+0.82*[0.44*(-59)-0.25*0.14*202+X*[0.311*202+0.25(0.86*202)]]
EV call= -4.32+0.82*[-33.03+X*106.25]
EV call= 0 -> X=26%
So if villain bluffs more than 26% with his draws (FDs+SDs) our call on turn is +EV
Conclusion:
This spot is very close because villain has very little Fds in his range.
If we think that villain bluffs more than 26% when he misses his draws then we should call turn otherwise just shove turn for a BE move
I am really looking forward to your comments on this (especially if you can spot any flaws in the logic/cals)