Hi everyone ![]()
I have been busy with w34z3l's 6max walkthrough assignments and I have to calculate my Risk of Ruin. I have derived a mathematical formula from the book 'The Education of a Modern Poker player'. This book is quite advanced so the math is as well. I also have mentioned the formula in my blog.
Some elements I don't know in the formula and hope someone could follow the steps and ask for clarification on some points. I believe together we can make this formula work!
Good luck and enjoy the ride ![]()
Formula
Spoiler
Winrate: 12.38/100
Std dev: 84.36
ROR: 1%
R = ROR
B = Bankroll ($50)
b = winrate = 12.38/100bb
-k = constant - from here comes the trouble
exp(-kB) = R(B) - not sure what 'exp' consists of
c = 1 (Because we know that if our bankroll is zero, we're certain to go bust as we are bust already. This means that R(0) = 1 and hence, c - 1)
P(b) = 2μ/ σ2 = (118.9*2) / (84.36*2) - def not sure if I did this correct! If someone can tell me where/how to get the real numbers, let me know
Bankroll: $50
ROR: R(B) = R(B) = 1%(50)
Splitting bankroll: $B1 & $B2 = B1 + B2 = B = $25 + $25 = $50
R(B1) and R(B2) = R(25) + R(25) = R(B1 + B2) = R(B1) R(B2) = R(25) R(25) = 1 – (0.25 * 0.25) = 37.5%
R’(B1 + B2) = R’(B1)* R'(B2) and R’(B1 + B2) = R’(B1)* R’(B2) =
R’(B1) / R'(B1) = R’(B2) / R’(B2) – This holds only when both equations are equal (which is; $25)
Constant = -k R(B)
Solution: R(B) = c exp(-kB)
When go bust: R(0) = 1, and therefore c = 1 and R(B) = exp(-kB)
So k must be positive!
R(B) > 0 – always since c = 1 and is inherent to (-kB), which is inherent to exp(-kB), which is inherent to c exp(-kB), which is R(B)! - Right? ![]()
Let’s say we start with $50B, this is $50B+b (where $b is the amount won/loss; so: b<0 or b>0)
Let’s say we win $5 with probability P(b), the ROR must be integral over all the possible amounts we might win, namely:
R(B) = ∫_(-00)^00 P(b)R(B+b)db - You see we don’t know k but we do know what R(B) is. P(b) is given in the book as: 2μ/ σ2 - Also here, the sign ∫ is an 'integral' in mathematics. This integral shows in the book 2 zeros on top and 2 zeros on the bottom of it. Not sure what this means ![]()
Final formula: R(B) = exp(-2𝛍B /𝛔₂ = 1%($50) = exp(-237.8*50 / 168.72)=-67%
100-67%=33. Therefore, I need a bankroll of 33 BI
Sooo, I hope you enjoyed it and do get something out of the formula that makes you want to puzzle immediately ![]()
Good luck everyone and thanks for helping me out!
VS