Hello,
Got these figures and did some math. Can i assume that average big blind is 0,12$? Cause 2,73BB=0,64$ and 1BB=x$, then x=(0,64$*1BB)/2,73BB=0,24$ so average bb=0,12$, right?
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No the average would be 0,24$.
The info you have states that per 100 hands you loose(irellevant) on average 0.64$
It also states that per 100 hands you loose 2.73 BB so 2.73BB=0.64$
1BB=0.64$/2.73=0.24$/BB
there is no need to divide by 2, but also the bb/100 might not be a perfect statistic if you play multiple levels, i know when i used to use the elephant it would give me funny bb/100 readings if i had played different stakes
Statistics ain't mine. I need to find out if they tell me that person was playing higher than NL10 
EDIT: I divided by 2 to get big blind, cause these are from PT3 and are shown in Big Bets