5CD theory question

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Last Post by jbpatzer 15 years ago

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jenoc

Joined: 06.04.2008

Posts: 509

20.11.2011, 23:06 0

Hello,
New to 5 CD. Reading and practicing atm.

I'm not sure - do I understand the term "median hand" correctly.
Theoretical situation:
Let's say on a large sample I know that villain is on UTG and open raises only KK+ so according to median hand I should 3bet 66554 or better and fold anything else? Or therm median hand "applies" only postdraw?

Another one.

Is there any way how to calculate hand ranges in 5 CD? For example, today I played some .10/.20$ FL 5CD on PS and there are players who limp/call very wide. When I start to get some sample on them - turns out they limp about 60+% hands. But I have no idea how wide should I isolate. Is this where the term median hand apply? In holdem we have loads of tools for range determination. How about 5CD?

Thanks in advance!

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jbpatzer

Joined: 23.11.2009

Posts: 6,972

21.11.2011, 13:52 0

My understanding is that the median hand is the hand exactly half way between the bottom of his range and a royal flush, counting in terms of combos. This lets you evaluate your hand against his likely range, particularly post draw. Predraw, if your hand is ahead of his median hand then I suspect that 3betting is a good idea, unless you're in the blinds in which case you can consider calling with a slightly weaker range because of pot odds.

My 5CD game improved massively once I realized that two pair+ = 7.5% of hands, and each pair is about 3.25% if hands, so 22xxx+ is about 50% of hands. Anyone who's opening 60% of hands is opening any pair and any draw, so you can raise them very widely. Just don't pay them off postdraw when they hit. :f_biggrin:

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