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AA early in the tournament, general play

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wlcKeD
Joined: 24.02.2009

Poker Stars, $2 Buy-in (10/20 blinds) No Limit Hold'em Tournament, 9 Players

Hero (MP2): 2,000 (100 bb)
MP3: 1,530 (76.5 bb)
CO: 2,315 (115.8 bb)
BTN: 2,240 (112 bb)
SB: 1,980 (99 bb)
BB: 2,000 (100 bb)
UTG+1: 1,665 (83.3 bb)
UTG+2: 1,980 (99 bb)
MP1: 2,000 (100 bb)

Preflop: Hero is MP2 with A♦ A♠
3 folds, Hero raises to 90, MP3 folds, CO calls 90, 3 folds

Flop: (210) 4♦ 5♣ 5♦ (2 players)
Hero bets 170, CO calls 170

Turn: (550) 3♠ (2 players)
Hero bets 495, CO raises to 2,055 and is all-in, Hero calls 1,245 and is all-in

River: (4,030) 8♦ (2 players, 2 are all-in)

Results: 4,030 pot
Hero showed Ad As and lost (-2,000 net)
CO showed Ah 5h and won 4,030 (2,030 net)

Third hand in the tournament, so villain is unknown [played 2 out of 3 hands]. So just the general question, because I seem to bust quite often in the early stage of the tournament with premium hands like QQ+, so maybe I'm playing them wrong? Since all three hands would have an overpair here, I'd play them all the same, as I did in this case with my aces. Is it correct, and I'm just being very unlucky with these hands, or is it wrong somewhere ?


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7 replies
Wohmfg
Joined: 12.11.2009

He's very rarely jamming the turn with a hand that you beat. I bet the flop and the turn as you did then fold to the raise.


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pvdheuvel
Joined: 01.08.2007

Originally posted by Wohmfg
He's very rarely jamming the turn with a hand that you beat.

Just with every draw and overpair...

Hand is fine as played.


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Wohmfg
Joined: 12.11.2009

Originally posted by pvdheuvel

Originally posted by Wohmfg
He's very rarely jamming the turn with a hand that you beat.

Just with every draw and overpair...

Hand is fine as played.

I didn't even think of overpairs tbh!

So a guy that jams the turn with a draw semibluffs to rep a 5, right? Because for villain to jam turn like that they have to think you're going to fold overpairs that you raised pre with and bet flop and turn with. I'm not going to give an unknown credit for that move. I'm going to have the default assumption that everyone at this limit is bad. In my experience, flatting the flop and a big raise on the turn from villain is a very strong hand where they are scared of very few other hands. And on a paired flop I don't see that turn jam being anything other than a 5 or a straight most of the time. Why would a donk jam an overpair there with a 5 on the flop, and why would a decent player jam an overpair there after you have raised pre, bet flop and bet turn?


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pvdheuvel
Joined: 01.08.2007

Originally posted by Wohmfg
Why would a donk jam an overpair there with a 5 on the flop, and why would a decent player jam an overpair there after you have raised pre, bet flop and bet turn?

It's a 2$ and early.


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Wohmfg
Joined: 12.11.2009

Originally posted by pvdheuvel

Originally posted by Wohmfg
Why would a donk jam an overpair there with a 5 on the flop, and why would a decent player jam an overpair there after you have raised pre, bet flop and bet turn?

It's a 2$ and early.

But these bad players still have some thought process, they do not just randomly choose to fold/call/bet/raise.

Some bad players will jam a draw on the turn for no other reason than they have a draw, but this is not very likely with an unknown imo!


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Targetme
Joined: 04.05.2009

I dont fold aces with a redraw much on a drawy board at a 2$ tourney


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Tiltberger
Joined: 23.06.2005

the thing is most players don't call the flop with an overpair and then shove the turn with it!
so you sometimes see a fd here (which they normall call again) or 67/trips/fh!
the problem is after you bet here again for value against overpairs and fds you can't fold anymore with the odds imo!

its not a nice spot imo but i think you played it well!


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