Known players:
[tg]Position_Stack:hands/vp$ip/RaisePreflop/AF/WTS/ORL/BBvsSteal/W$SD;Hero$5.64:///////;UTG$38.07:118/14 /5 /2.8/33 /18 /50 /50 ;UTG2$18.50:12/33 /8 /-/25 /0 /-/100 ;[/tg]
0.1/0.25 No-Limit Hold'em (10 handed)
Hand recorder used for this poker hand: PokerStrategy Elephant 0.67 by www.pokerstrategy.com.
Preflop: Hero is BB with 9♣, 7♠
UTG calls $0.25, UTG1 folds, UTG2 calls $0.25, 6 folds, Hero checks.
Flop: ($0.85) 6♣, 8♦, A♣ (3 players)
Hero checks, UTG bets $0.75, UTG2 folds, Hero calls $0.75.
Turn: ($2.35) T♦ (2 players)
Hero bets $2.24, UTG calls $2.24.
River: ($6.83) 5♦ (2 players)
Hero raises $2.40 (All-In), UTG calls $2.40.
Final Pot: $11.63
So, this serves UTG1 right for limping in with his pocket Aces then flopping trip Aces ![]()
Now, I can see I'm not getting the right odds to call for my straight draw here. If I'd known UTG1 was limping A,A I could have been pretty sure of extra implied odds. Since I didn't know this, is my call bad? Or can I assume if I hit, villain will probably bet/call again since he limped pf and then bet?
Also, do I need to discount 2 of my straight outs for
flush draw?
Thanks