I read bit too much information about implied odds and want to clear things up.
My current mixed knowledge of implied odds are as follows from different pages and books.
Blinds $5/10
Hero and villain have $2000
Villain raises $30
Hero calls $30
SB folds
BB folds
Pot: $70
Hero and villain have $1970
Flop: Jc7C3s
Villain bets $100
Villain announces he has top set, bets $100 on the flop. Also says he will go all in on the turn for rest of his money no matter what card comes.
Hero calls and misses lose $-100
Hero calls and board pairs on the river. (10 outs for villain 10/44) after we hit our gutshot)
(34 outs for hero's nut straight,river doesn't pair 34/44)
23% of the time we will lose $-1970
77% of the time we will win $1970+$75= $2075
Ev of catching straight on the turn= $1132
$1132.50=(33/44)($2045) - (10/44)($1970)
Implied odds are $1132: $100 or 11.3:1
Catching our gutshot on the turn is 4/45 or 10.25:1
Implied odds are greater than making our straight so we should call.
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Blinds $0.50/$1
Effective stack: $130
Hero: Th9s
Villain limps from early position
Hero limps on the button
SB folds
BB checks
Pot: $3.50
Flop: Ah7c6d
Both players check
Hero bets $2
Pot: $5.50
BB raises to $4
Pot: $9.50
Odds of hitting is 11:1
Immediate odds $9.5: $2 (about 5:1)
We have enough implied odds to chase gutshot
We expect to win more than $11.50 when hitting an 8 on the turn.
To have implied odds of 11:1 we need bets of another $12.50 paid off which is bit more than potsized bet.
Villain is likely to pay off two or more bets in later streets.
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I have misunderstood something somewhere...
First example describes implied odds as what we would win
Then compares with cathing our out as 10.25:1
Implied odds 11.3:1 > 10.25:1
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Second example describes implied odds as
11:1 -> hitting our out > 5:1 immediate odds
Any explanation of where I have it confused would be very helpful.
