Guys I've read the article, but I still don't get it!
For example:
Example A:
Let's say u hold: Spade Spade
Flop: Spade Spade Diamond
You'll have (47-9):9= 4:1 odds to get the third Spade on the table. How much is that in percentage? 25%?
Example B:
Let's say u hold: Spade Diamond
Flop: Spade Spade Heart
You'll have (47-10):10= 3.7:1 odds to get the flush. How much is that in percentage? 27%?
Something has to be wrong when I go from odds to percentages. What's the problem? Thanks.
Hi there,
when you have 4:1 this means that on five occasions you have 4 chanches of missing the card you want en 1 time actually flopping the card you want. This means 20% because on 5 occasions you have 1 chanche of hitting it.
Nothing is wrong... When you hold one spade basically the number of spades in the deck increased so flopping a "spade spade diamond" percentage is higher.
Hey guys,
I am afraid there is a misunderstanding. This feedback forum should not be used for hand judgment or strategy discussions but your feedback to the educational services PokerStrategy.com provides for you.
So feel free to use this forum to leave any kind of criticism or praise, any organisational questions or suggestions for improvements.
For strategy discussions and hand evaluations please use the dedicated forums.
No Limit Stratedy discussions & Hand evaluations
Fixed Limit Strategy Discussions & Hand Evaluations
SNG+MTT Strategy Discussions & Hand Evaluations
